Why did Jesus call the syrophoenician woman a dog? Here’s What to Expect

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Why did Jesus call the syrophoenician woman a dog?

That’s actually the question that this whole section is about. Who is the blessing of Messiah for? Who gets to enjoy his reign? If you ask the Pharisees it’s them—they are the children of Israel. To hell with the Gentiles, unless of course they become like the Pharisees. Messiah bread isn’t going to be lavished upon a place like Tyre.

Now some will say that Jesus is testing this woman’s faith. Others will point out that Jesus uses a term that means “puppy” instead of scavenger dog. And those are fine points to make, because I think Jesus is speaking in parable here to the woman. And so far in the gospel of Mark she’s the only one who actually understands his parable. But the key word in this passage isn’t “dog” but “bread.”

But the Canaanite woman, quite rightly, sees the whole in this entire way of thinking. Who puts a limit on Messiah’s bread? Why should we assume that the kids starve if the puppy gets some crumbs? She’s just asking for a crumb. Just a touch of his garment. Surely, there is enough Messiah to go around.

So, yeah, I think there is a bit of a test of faith for this Canaanite woman. There is wordplay going on here. But more than anything Jesus is teaching his disciples about what it really means that he is the Bread of Life. It means that He’s enough. And He doesn’t have to be stored away in fear that somehow he’s not sufficient to be given away freely to Jew and Gentile alike. Messiah takes the bread of redemption to Tyre.

I’ve always been a bit unsettled by Jesus’ reference to the Canaanite woman as a “dog.” I’ve heard all the explanations given and none of them seemed all that satisfactory. They seemed like an attempt to get around the very offensive thing that Jesus said to this woman. But I noticed something a few nights ago when our associate pastor was teaching on this passage. I’d never noticed this thread before and I think it’s actually the key to understanding the passage.

What is most important is the woman’s faith and her perseverance: “Oh woman, great is your faith! Let it be done for you as you desire.” So in the end, Our Lord praises the gentile “dog” for faith and perseverance that surpassed the Jews.

Second, Jews considered gentiles as “dogs.” To call a person a “dog” was a severe insult. The Jews used phrases like, “gentile dog,” “infidel dog” and later, “Christian dog.” However, Jesus used the diminutive form for “dog,” better translated as “puppy.” So instead of calling her the insulting “junk yard dog,” He calls her “lovable puppy.” (Keep in mind the English translation misses this distinction from the original Greek text.)

This passage is indeed complicated. Understanding the cultural context will help. First, Jesus’ mission was first to the people of the covenant, i.e., the Jews, who were awaiting the Messiah. Technically, the mission to the gentiles was not granted until the Ascension, when Our Lord said, “Go out and make disciples of all the nations” (Mt 28:18-20). Nevertheless, He already had shown His openness to the gentiles, like curing the centurion’s serving boy (Mt 8:5-13).

One would also have to ponder about how Jesus said this phrase. He must not have said “dog” with contempt or scorn. Rather, He probably said it tongue-in-cheek. For instance, to call someone a “rascal” literally would be derogatory, but I remember calling my nephew (when he was a toddler) “you little rascal,” of course in a loving way. Our Lord may even have been criticizing the normal Jewish parlance.

The passage in question occurs in Matthew 15:21-28. Our Lord is approached by a gentile Canaanite woman (also called the Syro-Phoenician woman) whose daughter is possessed by a demon. On first hearing their conversation, Our Lord definitely seems hostile and uncompassionate; however, to draw such a conclusion is contrary to who Jesus is.

Why did Jesus call the Canaanite woman a dog? | GotQuestions.org